Sr. Technician (Library) – IIT (ISM) Dhanbad | Question Paper with Answer Explanation (Exam Date: 11.12.2025)

IIT (ISM) Dhanbad – Library MCQs
INDIAN INSTITUTE OF TECHNOLOGY (INDIAN SCHOOL OF MINES), DHANBAD
QUESTION PAPER FOR THE POST OF SENIOR TECHNICIAN (LIBRARY)
LDCE – 2026 (Exam Date: 11.12.2025)
1. Sheets before and after the text of a book are called
A. End papers B. Attach cover C. Head bands D. Gilding
Explanation: End papers are the blank or decorative pages attached between the book cover and the main text block.
2. “Journal Citation Report (JCR)” is a product of
A. Elsevier B.V. B. Clarivate Analytics C. Emerald D. INSDOC
Explanation: Journal Citation Reports (JCR) is produced by Clarivate Analytics and provides journal impact factors.
3. India’s Cloud initiative under the Ministry of Electronics & Information Technology is:
A. MeghRaj B. Megha C. Badal D. Digital Ocean
Explanation: MeghRaj is the Government of India’s national cloud initiative under MeitY.
4. “Verso” refers to which side page of an open book
A. Right side B. Left side C. Upper side D. Lower side
Explanation: In book terminology, verso refers to the left-hand page of an open book.
5. “Books in Print” is a
A. National Bibliography B. Trade Bibliography C. Bio-Bibliography D. Analytical Bibliography
Explanation: Books in Print lists commercially available publications and is therefore a trade bibliography.
6. SCOPUS database provides which type of information?
A. Bibliographic data B. Bibliographic + Abstract C. Bibliographic + Abstract + Citation data D. None of the above
Explanation: Scopus provides bibliographic records, abstracts and citation tracking for scholarly literature.
7. Which of the following is not associated with communication system?
A. Sender B. Channel C. Receiver D. Ukrund
Explanation: Sender, channel and receiver are standard elements of communication; “Ukrund” has no relevance.
8. What is open access system?
A. Books are arranged in open shelves B. Books arranged in classified order C. Readers have freedom to access books D. All of (A), (B) and (C)
Explanation: Open access system allows users free and direct access to books arranged systematically on shelves.
9. ISO 2709:2008 is an international standard for:
A. Quality Management Format B. Information Security Management Format C. Date and Time format D. Format for Information Exchange
Explanation: ISO 2709 specifies the format for exchange of bibliographic records.
10. Impact factor is devised by
A. Eugene Garfield B. Alan Pritchard C. David Hume D. Louis Brandeis
Explanation: Eugene Garfield introduced the concept of Journal Impact Factor through citation indexing.
11. “Vidyanidhi” ETD project provides network access to Indian theses based at
A. University of Delhi B. Bangalore University C. IIM Indore D. University of Mysore
Explanation: Vidyanidhi ETD project was initiated at the University of Mysore to provide electronic access to Indian theses.
12. SIP, the communication protocol stands for
A. Signaling Information Protocol B. Internet Session Protocol C. Sound Initiation Protocol D. Session Initiation Protocol
Explanation: SIP stands for Session Initiation Protocol, used to initiate, maintain and terminate real-time communication sessions.
13. Newspaper subscription cost in library is paid from
A. Plan Fund B. Non-Plan Fund C. Project Fund D. Petty Cash
Explanation: Newspaper and journal subscriptions are recurring expenditures and are normally paid from Non-Plan funds.
14. Book Budget for the year 2025–26 is
A. 30 Lakh B. 40 Lakh C. 80 Lakh D. 50 Lakh
Explanation: As per the institute’s approved allocation, the book budget for 2025–26 is ₹50 Lakh.
15. E-Resource Budget for the year 2025–26 is
A. 5.50 Crores B. 7.25 Crores C. 8.75 Crores D. 10.00 Crores
Explanation: The approved budget for electronic resources for the year 2025–26 is ₹10.00 Crores.
16. Physical verification of Fixed Assets is done as per GFR
A. 213 B. 212 C. 214 D. 215
Explanation: As per General Financial Rules (GFR), Rule 213 deals with physical verification of fixed assets.
17. How much fine is required to be paid for losing a library book in our institute?
A. Rs. 500.00 B. Rs. 1000.00 C. Rs. 1500.00 D. None of the above
Explanation: The penalty is not a fixed amount and depends on the cost of the book along with replacement charges.
18. A Library user needs English Dictionary. Where is it located in your library?
A. 1st Floor B. 2nd Floor C. 3rd Floor D. 4th Floor
Explanation: English dictionaries are kept in the Reference Section located on the 4th floor.
19. Encyclopaedia Britannica published from
A. UK B. USA C. China D. France
Explanation: Encyclopaedia Britannica is published from the United States of America.
20. Which section is called “Face of the Library”?
A. Reference Section B. Circulation Section C. Book Section D. Journal Section
Explanation: Circulation Section is called the “face of the library” as it directly interacts with users.
21. “Orientation service” is part of
A. User Management Service B. Reference Section C. Technical Section D. Circulation Section
Explanation: Orientation service is a user education activity provided under Reference Services.
22. What is the first information needs to be filled up in “Book Indent Form” of our Library?
A. Name B. Employee Code C. Designation D. Department
Explanation: Employee Code is mandatory for identifying the indenter uniquely before processing the book indent.
23. How many types of “Budget Head” are mentioned in Book Indent Form?
A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four
Explanation: The Book Indent Form provides three budget heads such as Plan, Non-Plan and Project budgets.
24. As per “Book Indent Form” of the Institute, who are the authorities to approve the Book Indent?
A. (i), (ii) and (v) B. (i), (ii) and (iii) C. (ii) and (iii) D. (iii) and (v)
Explanation: As per the approved workflow, the Book Indent is approved by the Deputy Director and PIC-Library.
25. A book indent cost is Rs. 8,50,250/-. Who will approve the Book indent?
A. PIC-Library B. Deputy Director C. Director D. HOD
Explanation: High-value book indents beyond the prescribed limit are approved by the Deputy Director.
26. Who is the Indent approving authority for a Project book cost Rs. 3,75,450/-?
A. P.I. of the Project B. PIC-Library C. Deputy Director D. Director
Explanation: For project-funded book purchases within the specified limit, approval is given by PIC-Library.
27. How many “compulsory fields” (with * mark) are required to be filled up by an Indenter in the “Book Indent Form”?
A. 8 B. 10 C. 15 D. 12
Explanation: A total of 15 mandatory fields marked with (*) must be filled to validate the Book Indent Form.
28. Class number for “Mining” in UDC is
A. 623 B. 622 C. 624 D. 621
Explanation: As per Universal Decimal Classification (UDC), Mining is classified under class number 622.
29. Class Number for “Metallurgy” in UDC is
A. 669 B. 668 C. 667 D. 664
Explanation: In UDC scheme, Metallurgy is assigned the class number 669.
30. Latest edition of General Financial Rules (GFR) came in the year
A. 2005 B. 2007 C. 2017 D. 2018
Explanation: The latest revised General Financial Rules (GFR) were issued by the Government of India in the year 2017.
31. As per GFR 2017, sample physical verification at intervals of not more than three years should be done in case of libraries having more than ______ volumes.
A. 20,000 B. 30,000 C. 40,000 D. 50,000
Explanation: As per GFR 2017, libraries having more than 50,000 volumes are permitted to conduct sample physical verification once in three years.
32. As per GFR 2017, loss of ______ volumes per one thousand volumes of books issued/consulted in a year may be taken as reasonable provided such losses are not attributable to dishonesty or negligence.
A. two B. five C. six D. ten
Explanation: GFR 2017 allows loss of up to five books per thousand volumes issued/consulted annually as reasonable loss.
33. As per GFR 2017, separate accounts shall be kept for Library Books in the Form
A. GFR 18 B. GFR 21 C. GFR 22 D. GFR 24
Explanation: GFR Rule 18 specifies that separate accounts must be maintained for library books and publications.
34. As per Delegation of Financial Powers of the Institute, the financial power of the Deputy Director is
A. 5 lakh B. 10 lakh C. 15 lakh D. None of these
Explanation: The Deputy Director’s financial powers are defined separately under institutional delegation rules and do not match the given limits.
35. Price Variation Clause can be provided only in Long-Term Contracts, where the delivery period extends beyond
A. 6 months B. 12 months C. 15 months D. 18 months
Explanation: As per procurement rules, Price Variation Clause is allowed only when the delivery period exceeds 18 months.
36. As per Citizen Charter of the Institute, maximum time for processing of application pertaining to library membership is
A. 01 working day B. 02 working days C. 03 working days D. 05 working days
Explanation: Library membership applications are processed within one working day as per Citizen Charter.
37. As per Citizen Charter of the Institute, maximum time for processing of application related to Referral and Reference Service is
A. 01 working day B. 02 working days C. 05 working days D. 07 working days
Explanation: Referral and reference services are time-bound and are delivered within one working day.
38. As per Citizen Charter of the Institute, maximum time for processing of application related to library no dues is
A. 01 working day B. 02 working days C. 05 working days D. 07 working days
Explanation: Library No Dues clearance is processed within one working day as per Citizen Charter norms.
39. As per Citizen Charter of the Institute, maximum supply time for Indian edition book purchased from plan fund is
A. 4–8 weeks B. 6–10 weeks C. 10–14 weeks D. 14–18 weeks
Explanation: As per Citizen Charter norms, Indian edition books purchased under Plan Fund are supplied within 6–10 weeks.
40. Maximum time for processing of Plagiarism check of Research proposals in terms of Citizen Charter of the Institute is
A. 01 Working day B. 02 Working days C. 03 Working days D. 05 Working days
Explanation: Plagiarism check for research proposals is completed within three working days as per Citizen Charter.
41. As per DoFP, HoD of the department can sanction non-consumable stores upto a value of Rs.
A. 1 Lakh B. 4 Lakhs C. 10 Lakhs D. 20 Lakhs
Explanation: As per Delegation of Financial Powers (DoFP), HoD is empowered to sanction non-consumable stores up to Rs. 4 Lakhs.
42. Unmarried son can be dependent on the Institute employee for health care benefits
A. Till he starts earning or attains the age of 25 years, whichever is earlier. B. Irrespective of age limit. C. Till he starts earning irrespective of the age limit. D. Irrespective of an age limit and earnings.
Explanation: As per Government medical rules, an unmarried son is considered dependent till he starts earning or attains 25 years of age, whichever is earlier.
43. As per IA manual, for any changes i.e. Addition / Deletion / Relaxation / deviation of any clause of this manual will be brought to the notice of ________ for any decision in this regard.
A. BoG B. Director C. Dy. Director D. Registrar
Explanation: Any amendment or deviation in IA Manual clauses requires approval of the Director of the Institute.
44. Which of the following is the correct name of the main Act under which IITs are established / declared as institutions of national importance?
A. IIT Act 1963 B. The Institutes of Technology Act, 1961 C. The Indian Institutes of Technology Act, 1961 D. The Indian Institutes of Technology Act, 1963
Explanation: IITs are established and governed under “The Institutes of Technology Act, 1961”.
45. With reference to the RTI Act, 2005, which of the following is/are the examples of the fiduciary relationship(s)?
A. Advocate and client B. Doctor and patient C. Police and victim D. All of the above
Explanation: Fiduciary relationships involve trust and confidentiality, such as advocate–client, doctor–patient and police–victim.
46. Which provision of the RTI Act requires an “intimation for payment of further fees” to be sent by the CPIO?
A. Section 6(3) B. Section 7(3) C. Section 8(1) D. Section 10(3)
Explanation: Section 7(3) of the RTI Act mandates the CPIO to inform the applicant about additional fees required for providing information.
47. All the exemptions under Section 8(1) of the RTI Act, 2005 are –
A. Absolute exemptions B. Qualified exemptions C. Unreasonable exemptions D. None of the above
Explanation: Exemptions under Section 8(1) are qualified exemptions, as information may be disclosed if public interest outweighs harm.
48. Special casual leave is allowed to an employee for blood donation in recognised blood bank on working days, submission of valid proof of donation. How many times in a year?
A. 1 time B. 3 times C. 2 times D. 4 times
Explanation: As per Government leave rules, special casual leave for blood donation is permitted up to four times in a calendar year.
49. Combination of leave is allowed (i) CL + SCL (ii) CL + Regular Leave (iii) SCL + Regular leave (iv) SCL + CL + Regular Leave Which is incorrect?
A. Only (ii) B. Only (iv) C. (ii) & (iv) D. None of these
Explanation: As per leave rules, CL cannot be combined with Regular Leave, and three types of leave together are also not permitted.
50. Which of the following rules of the CCS (CCA) Rules, 1965 deals with the provision of suspension?
A. Rule 10 B. Rule 9 C. Rule 5 D. Rule 2
Explanation: Rule 10 of the CCS (CCA) Rules, 1965 specifically deals with suspension of a Government servant.
https://www.iitism.ac.in/storage/notice-documents/notice_6953fc202e8691767111712.pdf

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